Trump verdict in

But Trump must have had some outside non-Trump family investors to whom they showed the fraudulent statements (and induced them to invest, or maintain their investments)?

If that's not the case, then this doesn't seem to be such a big deal...
 
1) Did he falsify records? If you say no, then what did the jury hear that you disagree with?
2) Was it intended to influence the election (by keeping the payment/affair out of the media)?
 
But Trump must have had some outside non-Trump family investors to whom they showed the fraudulent statements (and induced them to invest, or maintain their investments)?

If that's not the case, then this doesn't seem to be such a big deal...
Apparently that was not the case.
 
Why did he do it then? What was his motive?

And, without investors or the IRS being cheated, who was harmed?
Apparently no one. I haven’t looked at why one way record keeping was different than what was supposed to be done because it doesn’t matter.
 
Why did he do it then? What was his motive?

And, without investors or the IRS being cheated, who was harmed?
Prosecutors allege Trump misrepresented payments to Cohen in Trump’s company records as legal fees when they were actually a reimbursement for the $130,000 that Cohen arranged to pay Daniels. The records at issue include general ledger entries, invoices and checks. Prosecutors argue Trump’s actions were a way of hiding the hush money scheme and concealing other crimes arising from it, including alleged election law violations. Trump denies the allegations. His lawyers have said the payments to Cohen were for legitimate legal expenses.
 
How did an additional expense increase his taxes that would have been theoretically higher in the absence of the deduction? AMT? Timing differences in the tax return (which I don't get because this isn't deferred taxes or alternative depreciation methods).
 
How did an additional expense increase his taxes that would have been theoretically higher in the absence of the deduction? AMT? Timing differences in the tax return (which I don't get because this isn't deferred taxes or alternative depreciation methods).
I think because Trump paid out of his own pocket but recorded it as legal expense at Trump Org. So if Trump recorded it as a deduction for a personal payout for a contract, his taxes would be lower.
 
Anyway Cohen was charged for campaign violation. Trump wrongly recorded a payment. What is the felony?
 
I think because Trump paid out of his own pocket but recorded it as legal expense at Trump Org. So if Trump recorded it as a deduction for a personal payout for a contract, his taxes would be lower.

I thought you said it increased his taxes. So, I guess you're saying it increased his personal taxes. I was focusing on the entity that paid Cohen. It was recorded as an expense. That is a deduction. That lowers taxes.
 
Anyway Cohen was charged for campaign violation. Trump wrongly recorded a payment. What is the felony?

It became a felony because it was in two parts:

1) The falsification of business records.
2) The falsification was intended to commit a crime: influence the election.
 
I thought you said it increased his taxes. So, I guess you're saying it increased his personal taxes. I was focusing on the entity that paid Cohen. It was recorded as an expense. That is a deduction. That lowers taxes.
Trump Org wasn’t charged. Go after the Trump Org then.
 
It became a felony because it was in two parts:

1) The falsification of business records.
2) The falsification was intended to commit a crime: influence the election.
I believe 1) and 2) happened after the election. So how is this possible? Again circular reasoning or double jeopardy.
 
It became a felony because it was in two parts:

1) The falsification of business records.
2) The falsification was intended to commit a crime: influence the election.
Influencing an election is not a crime. As I said before, that's exactly what campaigns and candidates attempt to do: influence an election in their favor.
 
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I heard a good analysis of this case. Lawyer said that falsifying business records is a misdemeanor unless the falsification was done to perform another crime. Then the record falsification becomes a felony.

In the Trump case the other crime was never defined. It was just assumed by the judge that there was another crime and he told the jury to think of it on those terms. They didn't have to explain what the other crime was or prove that it was in fact a crime. Then the judge didn't allow the defense to argue against there being another crime.

The judge instructed the jury to assume guilt from the start with no consideration that Trump could possibly be innocent of the crime. The misdemeanor he did commit requires a small fine as a consequence.

This was a Soviet show trial on American soil. This is the same group of people causing inflation, forcing obeisance to Pride Month, ending peace negotiations for Ukraine, bailing out Antifa and keeping them from being convicted of any crimes, releasing violent felons from prison, forcing in mass immigration to destroy American culture, regulating every single business to the point it is hard to stay open, rewarding psycohpathic people like Fauci, and giving weapons to Israel to, now, bomb a refugee camp.

I for one support none of it.
 
My questions:

1) Have charges been brought against Cohen for his admitted theft? Did Cohen pay taxes on the money he stole?
2) Did Daniels pay taxes on the hush money?
 
All NDA agreements are booked as legal expense which is what Trump was found guilty of.

It is my understanding, Trump, as CEO (or whatever his title was; I assume he was i senior executive) directed his accounting team to make a payment and a business/tax deduction for a personal problem. The NDA agreement should have been written with Stormy and Trump as the parties to the agreement. Was it done that way?
 
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If you think the CEO of any organization makes journal entries, you really don’t know anything about how businesses operate.
He just got convicted for having false entries made. (Of course Trump didn't get behind a computer screen and physically type the entries in himself--he had someone else do it). So why did he do it?
 
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So was this all some hyper-technical accounting mistake, or was it intentional deceit that caused material harm to others?

If the latter, then who was hurt by these mistaken bookkeeping entries, and how much $ were they hurt by?
 

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