I don't claim to be a Bible scholar, but I have read the book a few times in various translations. I've never understood how someone can have such a strong opinion on the "morality" of homosexuality based on bible translations that have varied pretty greatly, but have absolutely no concern about very explicit definitions of sin in the Bible, such as divorce and remarriage. The Books of Mark, Matthew, and Luke are very explicit in every translation I've read. Mark 10:2-12 "...Whoever divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her; and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery." Why shouldn't the BSA ban any divorced remarried parents who are committing adultery every day. How can these "morally corrupt" individuals be allowed to lead our children. They are violating one of the "big 10", every day. Why is that of no "moral" concern to the BSA? Is it because it is more common? Does the frequency of the sin make it less morally objectionable? Are those Books of the Bible, less regarded in defining morality? I'm not trying to be a wise *** here, but just trying to understand why the two perceived "sins" are viewed so differently by so many people.