accuratehorn
10,000+ Posts
In around the sixth inning, UT batting, man on first, and I believe a balk was called, so the man on first was awarded second base. Nothing unusual about that part of the play.
The batter had a 3-1 count, and he had hit a ball to third, I think, but the umpire called the balk and time (I think), and the batter returned to home plate due to the dead ball rule.
Then Augie comes out and discusses the ruling, the home plate umpire goes out to discuss the rule with the third base umpire, and then the batter is awarded first base.
Why was the batter awarded first base?
Is it because there shouldn't be a dead ball called when a balk is issued if the pitcher is already throwing the ball? Did the umpire screw up by calling the play dead at that point?
That's my belief, but I would like an expert to clarify, so have at it, rules book cognoscenti.
The batter had a 3-1 count, and he had hit a ball to third, I think, but the umpire called the balk and time (I think), and the batter returned to home plate due to the dead ball rule.
Then Augie comes out and discusses the ruling, the home plate umpire goes out to discuss the rule with the third base umpire, and then the batter is awarded first base.
Why was the batter awarded first base?
Is it because there shouldn't be a dead ball called when a balk is issued if the pitcher is already throwing the ball? Did the umpire screw up by calling the play dead at that point?
That's my belief, but I would like an expert to clarify, so have at it, rules book cognoscenti.