If what you're saying is true, then it should also apply to vacationers, diplomats, children of enemy combatants, etc... It's never llbeen taken to mean that, from what I've heard. No one would argue that a diplomat on U.S. soil can now have a child in the U.S. and have the kid be declared a citizen.
That's the whole point. A diplomat isn't subject to US jurisdiction. Vacationers are.
In addition, the illegal immigrant is still "subject to the jurisdiction" of his home country. And no, he is not "subject" to our jurisdiction. He is here illegally, and very much NOT subject to our laws. The problem is that it's an ambiguous statement that can be interpreted differently. But the quote above clearly indicates the intent.
You can be subject to more than one jurisdiction at a time. Do you understand what "jurisdiction" means? If a nation doesn't have jurisdiction over somebody, its courts have no authority to do anything to him - not because the laws don't apply to him but because the courts have no authority over him. Nobody intended to create a loophole that big. We do it for diplomats, whom we can expel at any time. We would not do that for just any schmuck who happens to show up in our country but doesn't happen to be a citizen.
The Citizenship Clause of the 14th Amendment states, “All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state where they reside.”
By its own terms, the language in the amendment precludes the notion of universal automatic birthright citizenship. It would have been quite simple for the language to exclude “and subject to the jurisdiction thereof” to accomplish the goal of bestowing citizenship on any child born in the United States no matter the status of their parents. The 14th Amendment’s addition of a jurisdictional requirement to the territorial requirement, however, denies any interpretation that birth alone grants citizenship.
You're right. Birth alone doesn't grant citizenship. Nobody's arguing that it does.
During Congressional debate of the Citizenship Clause it was made clear that the drafters did not intend automatic birthright citizenship for all persons born in the U.S. Senator Jacob Howard, a drafter of the 14th Amendment, in floor debate said of the Clause:
“This will not, of course, include persons born in the United States who are foreigners, aliens, who belong to the families of ambassadors or foreign ministers accredited to the Government of the United States, but will include every other class of persons.”[1]
First, re-read that sentence. It's not as clear as you think. Second, if you're a strict constructionist, you interpret a law as it's written, not as one member described it. That's why Antonin Scalia wasn't a fan of stuff like this. It's the word of one legislator, when the goal is to ascertain the intent of the legislature, not one guy.
In the Slaughter-House Cases of 1873, the Supreme Court said, “[t]he phrase, ‘subject to its jurisdiction’ was intended to exclude from its operation children of ministers, consuls, and citizens or subjects of foreign States born within the United States.”
Two points. First, this is obiter dictum (meaning it was a passing comment, not an actual legal ruling on the issue before the Court). Second, the Court directly ruled contrary to this in a subsequent case called US v. Wong Kim Ark. In that case, the Court granted citizenship to someone born in the US to Chinese nationals. They were not illegal aliens, but they were citizens of and owed allegiance to a foreign state.