Basketball rules/foul question

[VYFan]

The disputed foul/OB play in the Thunder/Clippers game tonight involved one player slapping the ball out of another's hands (with a foul, which wasn't called). The slap caused the ball to go out of bounds, but the ball was (probably, from the inadequate replay) off the first player's hands.

So my question is this: Sometimes I have heard in interpreting no-foul calls on blocked shots, where the defensive player gets ball and also gets hand, they say, "the hand is considered part of the ball." So you hit the hand, but because it's on the ball, you are considered to have hit ball. Here, kind of the same thing. The defensive player hits hand and ball, knocking the offensive player's hand into the ball and thus knocking the ball out of bounds.

Is that a valid interpretation, that the defensive player is considered to have hit the ball because the hand is part of the ball?

(If you watched, they did give it to the offensive player, maybe because of a make-up for missing the foul. But I just wondered whether my analysis was valid.)

What say you basketball geeks?

 

[Third Coast]

I didn't see that particular play, but the rules do clearly state that the offensive player's hand is considered part of the ball IF it's in contact with the ball when the defensive player makes normal contact with the hand.

What's normal contact? Better yet, what's abnormal contact? Beats the hell out of me.

 

[VYFan]

Thanks, but now I'm not sure whether i asked the question very well. My question wasn't whether for purposes of a foul, the hand was the ball (and thus, arguably, not a foul). My question was whether this same rule or logic applied to say that the out of bounds call would go against the hand/ball slapper (when no foul was called) even though he seemed to slap all hand and no ball. Make sense?

 

[chango]

The A hole Karl Malone used to say the arm was connected to the hand, which was touching the ball -- so he shouldn't be called for slamming someone against the forearms going for a 'steal' lol

 

[Third Coast]

I think your question was well stated and I did understand what you were asking. I just didn't do a very good job of responding to it.

I'm no expert by any stretch of the imagination, but I would assume that the same "hand is part of the ball" rule would apply to the situation you described. That is, as long as the offensive player's hand is in contact with the ball when the hand is slapped, that hand is considered part of the ball and not the offensive player. Therefore, the defensive player would be the last person to touch the "ball" before it went out of bounds.

Of course all that is dependent on the offensive player's hand maintaining constant contact with the ball at the moment the hand/ball is slapped by the defensive player.

 

[EDT]

Very exciting ending for sure. KD was clutch with that three point.

 

[Statalyzer]

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[wadster]

Game 6 was poorly officiated. I don't remember the rest of the series this piss poor. I never could figure out what was going to be called and what wasn't. I thought the Spurs got the shaft a few times early and certainly on the uncalled goal tending late. At the same time I thought the foul call late on Ibaka was pretty weak and way late. Also thought Duncan set a moving pick on the play that got Manu the 3, but refs just aren't going to call that that late in the game. I don't remember specifically that many more, but do remember just kind of shaking my head thinking WTF several other times.

I didn't really care who won, as I have mixed emotions. Not a Spurs fan, but think they have the best chance to beat the Heat, so I didn't really care who won this series as long as they win the next. At this point, I'm pretty much anyone but that punk Wade. So Go Spurs Go.